"He who believes and is baptized will be saved;
but he who does not believe will be condemned."
This
verse is frequently used by baptismal regenerationists to show that baptism is
necessary for salvation. It says he who believes and is baptized
will be saved. Therefore, they conclude that baptism is a necessary part
of becoming saved. But, does this verse prove that baptism is necessary
for salvation? Not at all. Mark 16:16
does not say that baptism is a requirement for salvation. Let me show you
why. I could easily say that he who believes and goes to church
will be saved. That is true. But it is belief that saves, not belief and
going to church. Likewise, if you believe and read your Bible,
you'll be saved. But it isn't reading your Bible that saves you.
Rather, belief in Christ, in His sacrifice, is what saves. As I've stated
in other papers on this subject, there are numerous verses that clearly
demonstrate that justification is by faith (Rom. 5:1;
Eph. 2:8; Phil. 3:9;
etc.). Belief in what God has done, not what man can do, is what results
in salvation. Baptism is simply a public demonstration of the inner work
of regeneration. This is why the rest of the verse says, "...but
he who does not to believe will be condemned." Mark
16:16 focuses on the issue of belief,
not baptism.
A textual issue with Mark
16:9-20
What
I will share here may not be very popular with some readers. Therefore, I
need to say upfront that I believe in the absolute inspiration and authority of
the Bible. It is the word of God and what it says is authoritative.
However, the simple fact is that there are textual variations within the
biblical manuscripts. The originals are what are inspired, not the copies.
We have copies of inspired documents. These copies are not perfect, but
they are very close to it.
Again, I am not saying the Bible is untrustworthy.
It is 98.5% textually pure. The remaining 1.5% of textual variation are
almost entirely of insignificant spelling errors and minor word omissions or
additions that do not change the meaning of the text. However, Mark
16:9-20 is a significant textual variant. Many scholars, Christian
scholars, consider the ending of Mark to lack authenticity. Please
consider the following evidence.
Manuscript
attestation
Mark
16:9-20 doesn't appear in many of
the oldest ancient manuscripts.
"The last twelve
verses of Mark (16:9-20) are lacking in the two earliest parchment
codices, B and Aleph, in the Old Latin manuscript k,, the
Sinaitic Syriac, many manuscripts of the Old Armenian version, the Adysh
and Opiza manuscripts of the Old Georgian version, and a number of
manuscripts of the Ethiopic version. Clement of Alexandria, Origen,
and Ammonius show no knowledge of the existence of these verses; other
Church Fathers state that the section is absent from Greek copies of
Mark known to them (e.g. Jerome, Epist. cxx. 3, ad
hedibiam,)...The original form of the Eusebian sections makes no
provision for numbering sections after 16:8. Not a few manuscripts
which contain the passage have scholia stating that older Greek copies
lack it (so, for example, MSS. 1, 20,22, &c.), and in other
witnesses the passage is marked with asterisks or obeli, the
conventional sigla used by scribes to indicate a spurious addition to a
literary document."1
There is another ending to
Mark.
Another ending is found in
L, Psi, 099, 0112, and minuscules 274mg 579, k, Syrh
and more is as follows:
"But they
reported briefly to Peter and those with him all that had been told.
And after this Jesus himself sent out by means of them, from east to
west, the sacred and imperishable proclamation of eternal
salvation."
Apparent, theological error.
Mark
16:12 says, "And after that, He appeared in a different form
to two of them, while they were walking along on their way to the
country." This verse may be problematic. Jesus rose
in the same body that he died in (John
2:19), though it was a glorified
body. This is problematic because it suggests "a different
form." Jesus did not appear in a different form. He
appeared in the same body he rose in. This is a significant
problem and seems to support the idea that this section
of scripture is spurious, a later addition, or a
possible attempt to recount a lost section of the
gospel.
Vocabulary
usage.
There are 17 non-marcan
words used in a non-marcan sense in these verses. In other
words, in the last 11 verses under discussion there
are 17 "new" words that don't occur in the entire
gospel of Mark. It appears that someone wrote
the ending of Mark and added it to the gospel
because the style is different and the vocabulary is
different.
This
information about the ending of Mark is not intended to cast doubt upon God's
word. But the fact is that the ending is under a large cloud of doubt as
to its authenticity. I would not use it as a defense for baptismal
regeneration.
It appears that the ending of Mark may have been lost
and someone rewrote it and attached it to a copy at
sometime. It is possible that the ending under
question was never there to begin with.
_____________ Footnote. 1. "The Text of the New Testament," by Bruce
Metzger (Professor of New Testament Language and Literature, Princeton Theological
Seminary), 2nd ed., Oxford University Press, New York, 1968, p. 226.