Questions for Jehovah’s
Witnesses
- The Watchtower organization has claimed to be the prophet of God (The Watchtower, April
1, 1972, p. 197) yet it has made numerous false prophecies. The
excuse given for their false prophecies has been to quote Proverbs 4:18 which says,
"But the path of the righteous ones is like the bright light that is getting lighter
and lighter until the day is firmly established." Whether
or not the "light gets brighter" or not does not change
the fact that the Watchtower made false prophecies. The
Bible says in Deut. 18:20-22, "‘However, the
prophet who presumes to speak in my name a word that I have not commanded him to speak or
who speaks in the name of other gods, that prophet must die. And in case you should say in
your heart: "How shall we know the word that Jehovah has not spoken?"
When the
prophet speaks in the name of Jehovah and the word does not occur or come true, that is
the word that Jehovah did not speak..."
If the NWT condemns false prophesying and states that it is proof
that God is not speaking through that prophet, then doesn’t this prove that the
Watchtower Bible & Tract Society is not speaking for God?
- Why does the New World Translation insert the word Jehovah in the
New Testament when there are absolutely no Greek manuscripts that have it in there?
Isn’t this playing with the text?
- In the book, "Salvation" by J. F. Rutherford, 1939, p.
311, (a Watchtower Publication) it says, "At San Diego, California, there is a small
piece of land, on which, in the year 1929, there was built a house, which is called and
known as Beth-Sarim. The Hebrew words Beth Sarim mean "House of the
Princes"; and the purpose of acquiring that property and building the house was that
there might be some tangible proof that there are those on earth today who fully believe
God and Christ Jesus and in His kingdom, and who believe that the faithful men of old will
soon be resurrected by the Lord, be back on earth, and take charge of the visible affairs
of earth. The title to Beth-Sarim is vested in the Watchtower Bible & Tract Society in
trust, to be used by the president of the Society and his assistants for the present, and
thereafter to be forever at the disposal of the aforementioned princes on earth
[italic added]. . . . while the unbelievers have mocked concerning it and spoken
contemptuously of it, yet it stands there as a testimony to Jehovah’s name; and if
and when the princes do return and some of them occupy the property, such will be a
confirmation of the faith and hope that induced the building of Beth-Sarim."
This place was sold in 1942 after Rutherford’s death.
Therefore, it appears that the faithful were misled since the house was to "be
forever at the disposal of the aforementioned princes." Is this really a testimony to
Jehovah’s name as it said? How can it be if they sold the house?
- The Watchtower organization states that Jesus died on a stake, not
a cross. The typical Watchtower representation of this is with Jesus on a single
vertical stake, hands over his head with a single nail in his wrists. If Jesus were crucified on a
cross, then two nails would be necessary, one in each hand. How then does the Watchtower
organization handle the verse in the Bible that states that Jesus had nails (plural) in
his hands: "Consequently the other disciples would say to him: "We have seen the
Lord!" But he said to them: "unless I see in his hands the print of the nails
and stick my finger into the print of the nails and stick my hand into his side, I will
certainly not believe" (John 20:25, NWT).
Jesus had one nail in each hand. This is made clear by the use of the
word ‘nails’ not ‘nail.’ Jesus must have been crucified on a cross,
and not a stake as the Watchtower organization teaches. Why is it, then, that the
Watchtower teaches something that is so clearly unbiblical?
- The Watchtower organization states that through good works and
sincere effort only 144,000 elite JW’s will go to heaven. The 144,000 are mentioned
in two chapters in the Bible: Revelation 7 & 14. By looking at the verses it is
obvious that the 144,000 are literal Jews of the ancient tribes with no Gentiles among
them (7:4-8). They are all males (14:4) and virgins (14:4). If the JW states that the
usage of Jewish male virgins is figurative, what gives them the right to state that number
of 144,000 is literal?
- Where does it
teach in the Bible that Jesus is Michael the archangel? Why
isn't Jesus called Michael right now since he is in heaven?
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