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1 Tim. 2:4
and 2 Pet. 3:9. Is it
God's will that all people be saved?
- "This is good and acceptable
in the sight of God our Savior, 4who desires all men to
be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth"
(1 Tim. 2:3-4).
- "The Lord is not slow about
His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not
wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance" (2
Pet. 3:9).
To
begin with, the answer to the question "Is it God's will that all
people be saved?" must be "Yes," because that it what the
Bible says. But does that mean that all will be saved?
The universalists believe so. They will appeal to 1 Tim.
2:3-4 and 2 Pet. 3:9 combined with other verses where God says He will accomplish what
He desires. They then say that since God says He will accomplish all
His desires and He desires all to be saved, then all will be saved.
- ". . . and I [God] will
accomplish all My good pleasure," (Isaiah
46:10).
- "But our God is in the
heavens; He does whatever He pleases," (Psalm
115:3).
- "Whatever the Lord pleases, He
does," (Psalm
135:6).
This is a straight-forward approach, but it is also very simplistic and
incomplete because it does not take into account all of scripture relating
to the subject of God's desire. Instead, the Universalists
"proof-text" their way into a foregone conclusion by picking and
choosing certain scriptures and combining them to form an implied
conclusion. This is how error is born and it is not good
theology. Instead, the proper thing to do is to look at all of
scripture on a topic and draw conclusions from the whole, not the
part. I will gather a broader scope of scripture dealing with this
subject and attempt to show that God's desire is not always accomplished
and, therefore, the claim of the universalist that the above verses prove
that all will be saved, is in error.
To begin with, are God's desires always
accomplished? No, they are not. God's desire is that people do
what is right and not sin: "To do righteousness and justice
is desired by the Lord rather than sacrifice," (Prov.
21:3).
But people still sin in spite of God's stated desire. Was it
the desire of God that Adam and Eve rebel? No. Was it God's
will that David commit adultery? No. Yet, they did the very thing
God did not want. God commands that all people repent (Acts
17:30);
but not all do. Clearly, God's will is not always done.
In theology, when examining this issue of God's
will and His allowance of sin, we distinguish between what is called God's
perfect will and His permissive will. In His perfect will, He
desires that all refrain from sin. But in His permissive will, He
allows sin to exist. In this sense, He has two wills regarding sin.
He desires that sin not exist because it is contrary to His nature, yet He
wills that it does by making provision for it in His sovereign plan.
This does not mean that God brought sin into existence. It means
that He simply permitted it by allowing the fall. He then uses
it, and other sins, for His glory and purpose. Please recall the
account of Joseph's brothers who sinned by selling him into slavery and
then lying to their father about it. After many years when the
family was reunited, Joseph said, "And as for you, you meant evil
against me, but God meant it for good in order to bring about this present
result, to preserve many people alive" (Gen.
50:20). God
meant it for good? How could that be if God is only passively
allowing things to occur? Here, Joseph states that God had a purpose
in their sin. Though God does not want sin, He made provision for it
in His divine plan. Consider also how evil people conspired against
Jesus to bring Him to death. Was this God's plan that they do this?
- "For truly in this city there
were gathered together against Thy holy servant Jesus, whom Thou didst
anoint, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the
peoples of Israel, 28 to do whatever Thy hand and Thy purpose
predestined to occur," (Acts
4:27-28).
Do
you see how God predestined Herod and Pontius Pilate to carry out His
will? Didn't they sin in condemning Jesus? Yes! Did God
predestine them to do what He planned? Yes! Did God make them
sin? No, for God does not tempt anyone (James
1:13). Yet, God,
in His sovereignty predestined them to do what they did.
God is in control of history and it goes where He
directs it. Though He does not desire that people sin, He makes room
for it. Therefore, we can plainly see that God can desire one thing and
even ordain another by giving it a place in His sovereign plan.
So, how can anyone assert that based on 1 Tim.
2:3-4 and 2 Pet. 3:9 combined with
Isaiah 46:10; Psalm
115:3, and Psalm 135:6
above, that all will be saved because that is God's desire and God's
will is always done? They cannot. God can desire all be
saved, but not ordain that all are by making provision in His plan for
their damnation: "The Lord has made everything for its own
purpose, even the wicked for the day of evil," (Prov.
16:4).
Again, simply because God states that He desires
all people to be saved does not mean that all will be saved.
This is particularly important when we notice that God elects people (Matt.
24:24,31; Mark
13:20; Rom. 8:33), predestines them
(Rom. 8:29-30; Eph.
1:1-11), appoints them to eternal life (Acts
13:48), and grants that
they believe (Phil. 1:29). We must ask why doesn't God elect all,
predestine all, appoint all, or grant that all believe when He has the
power to do so? Is it because God is incapable of carrying out His
will? Or is there something greater than God at work? Of
course not. God is in absolute control. He can desire one
thing (that people not sin), yet ordain another (plan that sin exist in
the world). Likewise, God can desire that all be saved, yet not ordain
that they are.
What Does God Want?
Some will object to the claim that God sometimes wants one thing and yet
does another. They would assert that this would be a contradiction.
But it is not since God has obviously done this. Is it a
contradiction when a judge wants to show mercy to all people but orders
that criminals be punished? Is it a contradiction when the judge
says to a murderer, "You shall not murder!" but, according to
the law, sentences him to death? No. Though the desire and
action be different, there is no contradiction at all. The
judge is under obligation to keep the Law. . . and so is God. He
must remain true to His revealed Law which is a reflection of His divine
character. After all, God is just and must punish sin.
To further illustrate the point that God can
ordain something different than what He desires, please consider the
scriptures below.
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We
can see that God says He does not wish any to perish. But, we can
also see that God gave Israel eyes to not see with and ears to not
hear with. Likewise, Jesus, who is God in flesh, purposely spoke to
people in parables so they would not perceive and repent (Mark
4:11-12). If God wants all saved, why would He arrange it so people
were blinded and prevented from seeing? Some will say that the
people did this to themselves. But that is not what the text says.
Clearly, God is the one performing the actions in preventing them to see.
In this case, He desires one thing and does another.
Does God want pain and suffering in the world?
The obvious answer is no. God created Adam and Eve and put them in a
perfect world without pain, without suffering, and without loss.
That is God's desire because that is the way God made things in the
beginning. Yet, we have pain, suffering, and loss in the world.
Why? Because that is the nature of our sinful system -- and God
permitted it. But are we to say that God is not in control?
Again, no. In fact, God causes some of the very things we believe He
does not want.
- "And the Lord said to him,
'Who has made man’s mouth? Or who makes him dumb or deaf, or seeing
or blind? Is it not I, the Lord?'" (Exodus
4:11).
- "If a calamity occurs in a
city has not the Lord done it?" (Amos
3:6).
- "The One forming light and
creating darkness, causing well-being and creating calamity; I am
the Lord who does all these," (Isaiah
45:7).
- "Who is there who speaks and
it comes to pass, unless the Lord has commanded it? 38
Is it not from the mouth of the Most High That both good and ill go
forth?" (Lam.
3:37-38).
- "The Lord has made
everything for its own purpose, even the wicked for the day of
evil," (Prov.
16:4).
Can God want one
thing and and yet specifically accomplish something else? Obviously
the answer is yes. Let's look at some more verses.
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Why would God compel people to come into His house so that it can be
filled and yet send a deluding influence upon the same people? Are
not those people in 2 Thessalonians, at the time of the Antichrist, the
same people included in the highways and hedges? Does not God compel
all to enter into His house regardless of when and where they are in
history? Is it not God's desire to save all? Yes it is.
Yet, God actually sends a deluding influence on people and hardens the
hearts of others. He desires one thing yet sometimes does
another. This is both challenging and fascinating. Why would
God do such a thing? The answer lies in Scripture.
God is in Control
God is in
control of all things and is bringing history to the prophetically
determined destiny to which He has aimed it. He hardens some and
softens others. He arranges things so that battles occur, people are
destroyed, lives are changed, nations moved, and people saved. All
of this is done in accordance with His divine plan. In fact, it is
done because He has a divine plan. Please consider the
following.
- "this Man, delivered up by the
predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a
cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death," (Acts
2:23).
- "For truly in this city there
were gathered together against Thy holy servant Jesus, whom Thou didst
anoint, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the
peoples of Israel, 28to do whatever Thy hand and Thy purpose
predestined to occur," (Acts
4:27-28).
God did not
cause the people who crucified Jesus to sin. But, He sure used their
sin and He predestined all of it to occur. He used the sins of Herod
and Pilate along with the Gentiles to do His divine will. In fact,
God anointed them to do what they did. Why? To carry out His
purpose and His plan to bring His Son to the cross, to save sinners, and
to bring glory to Himself.
Some may object and say that God only knew what
the evil people were going to do and simply used it. But, that is
not what the scripture says. Besides, God has the ability to change
the hearts of people: "The king’s heart is like channels
of water in the hand of the Lord; He turns it wherever He wishes" (Prov.
21:1). This means that man's will is subject to God.
Then again, some may say that God must not
violate people's freedom and will let them sin. But in response,
examine Gen.
20:6 where God kept Abimelech from sleeping with Abraham's
wife: "Then God said to him in the dream, “Yes, I know
that in the integrity of your heart you have done this, and I also kept
you from sinning against Me; therefore I did not let you touch her."
God prevented Abimelech from sinning. It was Abimelech's desire to
enter Abraham's wife, yet God prevented it. God can and does control
people's hearts and actions so that they will accomplish His purpose.
He does this sovereignty and He does it without causing people to
sin. He can even make someone's heart hard for the purpose of
carrying out His plan.
- "But Sihon king of Heshbon
was not willing for us to pass through his land; for the Lord your
God hardened his spirit and made his heart obstinate, in order to
deliver him into your hand, as he is today," (Deut.
2:30).
- The NIV, NKJV, RSV, KJV, and NASB
all state that it was God who hardened Sihon's heart -- not
strengthened it towards its tendency.
- "For it was of the Lord to
harden their hearts, to meet Israel in battle in order that he
might utterly destroy them, that they might receive no mercy, but that
he might destroy them, just as the Lord had commanded Moses,"
(Joshua
11:20).
- The NIV says "it was the
LORD himself who hardened their hearts." The RSV
says "it was the Lord's doing."
In Deuteronomy 2,
the Lord told Moses to tell Sihon King of Heshbon to let the Israelites
pass. But, we see that God deliberately hardened King Sihon's heart1
so that they could be delivered into Israel's hands and destroyed.
We see in Joshua, that it was "of God" to harden the Canaanites
so that they might be destroyed. Why? Because God had a
greater plan and purpose than showing them mercy. What is that plan?
I believe God was arranging history to lead to the ultimate goal of
Christ's crucifixion, resurrection, and return, along with the redemption
of God's people. This is the divine plan that God has ordained. God
is in control and He has a purpose that He has revealed in Scripture.
Please consider Rev. 17:16-17 as further support for this.
- "And the ten horns which you
saw, and the beast, these will hate the harlot and will make her
desolate and naked, and will eat her flesh and will burn her up with
fire. 17 "For God has put it in their hearts to
execute His purpose by having a common purpose, and by giving their
kingdom to the beast, until the words of God should be fulfilled.
In Revelation.
17:16, God put it into the hearts of people to rebel so that His
prophetic word could be fulfilled. God was, is, and will
continue to control events in order to accomplish His divine plan.
He is bringing these people to a place of being destroyed and it isn't
simply because they are rebellious. It is because "God has
put it in their hearts to execute His purpose . . .until the words of God
should be fulfilled"!
But, some will claim that God cannot put such
things in people's hearts -- in spite of the verses shown above.
They will quote scripture where God says He does not desire the death of
the wicked and, therefore, could not be purposely doing such a thing.
- "For I have no pleasure in
the death of anyone who dies," declares the Lord God.
"Therefore, repent and live," (Ezekiel
18:32).
- "Say to them, ‘As I live!’
declares the Lord God, ‘I take no pleasure in the death of the
wicked . . . (Ezekiel
33:11).
We clearly see
that God does not take pleasure in the death of the wicked. That is,
it is not His desire that even the wicked die. Yet, they do and to
further complicate things, as we have seen in the scriptures above, He
even hardens them (Exo. 4:24-25; Rom.
9:18), deludes them (2
Thess. 2:11),
and puts it into their hearts to rebel (Deut.
2:30; Rev. 17:16-17).
And if that weren't enough, take a look at the following:
- "And it shall come about that
as the Lord delighted over you to prosper you, and multiply you, so the
Lord will delight over you to make you perish and destroy you. .
." (Deut. 28:63).
- The word "delight" here
is the word "soos" in Hebrew and it means to exult,
rejoice, display joy.
- "If one man sins against
another, God will mediate for him; but if a man sins against the Lord,
who can intercede for him?" But they would not listen to the
voice of their father, for the Lord desired to put them to death,"
(1
Sam. 2:25).
- The words "desired" here
is the same Hebrew word, "chaphets," used in Ezekiel
18:32 and 33:11
("pleasure") above. It means
"to delight in, take pleasure in, desire, be pleased with.
It was the sons of Eli who would not listen to their father.
Why? Because the Lord desired to put them to death. In
other words, they would not listen because God desired to
put them to death.
- Likewise, the word "chaphets"
occurs in Isaiah
53:10 where it says, "But the Lord was pleased
to crush Him, putting Him to grief."
In the above
verses you can see that God takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked
yet he delighted in destroying the wicked people. Is this a
contradiction? No. Because God has a purpose and a plan.
He
has the sovereign right to accomplish His will. On one hand, He
doesn't want people to suffer and die, yet on the other hand, He is
delighted to carry out His divine plan which necessarily includes the
death of the wicked because it is in accordance with the Law which He
Himself has given us. His divine plan will be accomplished.
This is further proof that God can desire one thing and bring another to
pass.
What does it all mean?
So what do we
make of this difficult issue that God can desire one thing and yet arrange
circumstances, influence hearts, and govern people to the contrary?
I believe it is because there is something greater than God's desire that
all should be saved; namely that God's divine plan will be carried out
for His glory and the salvation of the elect.
Love and kindness are not the only aspects of
God's glorious being. He is also holy and righteous and has brought
history through its course in order to reflect His great wisdom and
justice as well as His love and mercy. Though God hates sin, He permits it
for the greater glory of Himself and His plan. In this, He desires
all to be saved, but has not ordained that it be so because, according to
the Law, He must punish sinners.
The Law is a reflection of God's character.
Jesus said that out of the heart, the mouth speaks (Matt.
12:34).
God spoke and the Law came forth. It is pure and perfect because it
reflects God's character. God has said that the soul that sins will
die (Ezekiel 18:4), that sin causes a separation between God and man
(Isaiah
59:2), that He must punish the sinner (Exodus
32:34; Hosea 9:9), and that His
eyes are too pure to look upon evil (Hab.
1:13). If someone sins,
they must be punished because it is in accordance with God's Law.
That is why God can desire all to be saved, yet not ordain that all be
saved because His Law cannot be broken. What He is doing is
remaining true to His character in both His justice and grace. He is
true to His justice because He rightfully judges people according to His
Law. He is true to His grace because He gives people the salvation
they do not deserve. In both, He is being consistent with His own
character.
To that end, God has ordained all of history to
flow to the predetermined end to which He has sent it. He has His
plan and it will be carried out. He will bring glory to Himself.
He will judge the wicked. He will save the believers. This is
why He is enduring with such patience the wicked people.
- "What if God, although willing
to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with
much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? 23And He did so in order that He might make known the riches of His
glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory, 24
even us, whom He also called, not from among Jews only, but also from
among Gentiles" (Rom.
9:22-24).
God has worked
all things after the counsel of His will (Eph.
1:5) and has engineered
history to bring not only the cross as the means of redemption, but also
the culmination of all things for the declaration of His own glory,
righteousness, holiness, and character. Sin will be shown to be
utterly sinful and horrible. The cross demonstrates His
righteousness and grace and His sovereign will is carried out.
Do 1 Tim.
2:3-4 and 2 Pet. 3:9 prove that all will
be saved? No, not at all. But they do show us that God is not
simplistic and that He has a divine plan that we must truly seek to fathom
if we are to rightly understand His word.
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1. The word "hardened" is the Hebrew "qashah."
According to the Strong's concordance, it means "to be hard, be
severe, be fierce, be harsh, be difficult, make hard, make stubborn. .
.The NIV says "God had made his spirit stubborn and his heart
obstinate." The NKJV says, "the Lord your God
hardened his spirit and made his heart obstinate." The RSV
says, "for the Lord your God hardened his spirit and made his
heart obstinate."
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